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File: Shanghai Triad.jpg (206 KB, 1067x1600)
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When the Communist won the Chinese Civil War in 1949, they proceeded to destroy the organized triads in Mainland China in a strict crackdown campaign, which led to the fall of the glamorous Shanghai Triad which ceased to exist by the mid 1950s and the migration of many Triad gangs into Hong Kong and Southeast Asia.

In 1997, Hong Kong was handed over to the People's Republic of China. Here in Hong Kong however, instead of eliminating the triads, they instead managed to survived and- apparently- are working with the Mainland Government over various matters relating in Hong Kong.

How come the Chinese didn't repeat triad-exterminations in Hong Kong?
Because the current PRC isn't Mao's China?
The guy who was behind the Great Leap Forward and the Cultural Revolution is obviously going to be a bit more brutal on crime than the regime of 1997, or the current one really
Because the 1 Country 2 Systems does not let the PRC to directly/openly interfere with Hong Kong affairs. So they have to resort to other avenues of doing so and one of them is the HK Triad.

Come 2049, it will be the Day of the Mobile Execution Van for Triadniggers. But maybe they'll move to Taiwan, Singapore, or the Philippines instead of getting the needle.

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>On February 20, 1939, a Nazi rally was organized by the German American Bund at Madison Square Garden. More than 20,000 people attended, and Fritz Julius Kuhn was a featured speaker. The Bund billed the event, which took place on George Washington's Birthday, as a pro-"Americanism" rally; the stage at the event featured a huge Washington portrait with swastikas on each side.[1]

Was National Socialism uniquely German or could it have worked other places like the US?
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Get gassed slavnigger
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>0.2% of the population of an incredibly cosmopolitan city being interested in fringe political movements is remarkable
Slav isn't a race.
Neither is "Comanche" for that matter. So what?

Tournaments seem to have become a fairly common way for noblemen, knights and some other men-at-arms to show off their martial abilities as well as keep themselves sharp while potentially winning some prize money in the high and late middle ages.
From everything I could find, it talks about how the joust was the big event of most of the tournaments and I suppose that makes sense given the importance and status of heavy cavalry. I'm curious about how the various melee portions worked though. Particularly how they managed to keep it from being exceedingly dangerous since, while they were martial games, tournaments were not blood sports.

The joust is pretty straight forward in the sense that they used different shafts meant to break away and tips that weren't meant to puncture.
But how did they keep the melees (both on or off of horseback) relatively safe?
I know they could use blunted swords, for example, but were they only allowed to use swords?
Even if you blunt the cutting edge of a one-handed axe or a pollaxe, it is still incredibly dangerous to hit someone with for example.
And if a warrior's preferred melee weapon was something like a mace or warhammer, they would be essentially as deadly in a tournament melee as they are in a real war melee, right?

I know some of this danger could be mitigated with armor and shields, but how did they manage to hold these melees before plate armor was the then norm for knights and men-at-arms without it leading to devastating injuries and even deaths all the time?
A paddd gambeson, maille and a helmet is good protection, but not going to save you from broken bones or worse if you're getting hit full power with a weapon with a lot of mass.

tl;dr Does anyone know how medieval tournament melees worked?
How did they fight with steel weapons and not kill or seriously incapacitate each other, especially if weapons other than blunted swords were an option?
How were people even eliminated from the melee?
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Doesn't sound so great lmao
They were both a thing. Free for Alls were more dangerous since it was impossible to tell who was who. Altho even in free for alls it was common for knights to form unofficial alliances on occasion. Aka "YO SIR EDMUND I DON'T FIGHT YOU, YOU DON'T FIGHT ME K LET'S GET TO THE END!"
Nice answer. Why do pretty much all of the art of melees show the competitors using only swords then? A blunt sword seems like it would be a bad choice against a mace, hammer, poleaxe, axe, heavy infantry spear, halberd, or even just a strong wooden club.
Did most melee participants carry a primary weapon like a mace or poleaxe and then a blunt sword as a side arm in case they lost their primary choice like real war, perhaps?
Or were blunted swords a viable choice for melees before plate armor was prevalent?
I think the idea of a sword is that it's a lot less heavy then carrying around a 10 pound maul and has the added benefit that you could probably use that extra weight to carry a shield. That one knight with a poleaxe is gonna hit like a truck but he has no means of defense other than his armor really. And you gotta remember the point of Melee is to get your opponent to yield to you. You aren't actively trying to murder them. Which is always a possibility even with careful use of a mace or polearm.
>Why do pretty much all of the art of melees show the competitors using only swords then?
The weapons to be used were often pre-determined by those who hosted the event, so you couldn't bring your two-handed axe to an event that stated they would be using one-handed, blunt swords with no sharp tips. They probably chose to use swords to minimise the risk of injury, which would not be given if they were using pollaxes or war hammers.

So ik that England had very large holdings in France during the Hundred Years War, and that they used French vassals as sources of troops. However what proportion of English continental armies actually were drawn from their holdings in Normandy, Gascony, etc.
Anjou mostly
And you have to remember the 100 years war was a fight between two branches of the same French dynasty for the throne.
And it was that war that gave rise to a distinct English identity amongst the upper class, who up to that point were still very French.
English armies during the 100YW included Welsh and English soldiers who owed duty to their liege, mostly archers, French soldiers from the continental Plantagenet holdings, and the soldiers of French nobles who decided to throw their lot in with the English.

Why did the Mob didn’t had that much power in America or Europe compared to the drug cartels in Latin America?
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The war on drugs basically had the same effect the American prohibition had.
Because Latin America is not as stable as North America or Europe.
LA was mostly ruled by oligarchies ever since they secured their independence and fully ruled by oligarchies by the start of the 20th century. This is due to their independence movements not being very flashed out (with the only exception being Brazil, who was able to unite all of the Portuguese colonies under a royal dynasty) and because, unlike Britain, Spain saw their colonies simply as a source of income and riches rather than a place to live in that could also bring riches to the colonizer.
Wait, Cuba is a north american country?
America had a functioning infrastructure, which included a well-financed police force and domestic intelligence service. Mexico had neither.

> Seljuk
> Khwarazmian
Turkic Mamluk
> Ilkhanate
> Timurids
> Aq Qoyonlu
> Safavids
> Afsharid
> Zand

Comment too long. Click here to view the full text.
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Safavid Turkification was largely limited to the Military. And that's only because the Steppenigger Military Culture supplanted local ones throughout the entire middle east.
>Has a picture of some Shi'ite Imam and Ataturk side by side
Why do Turks do this?
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I guess that's why so many Safavid rulers and their children were named after heroes, mythological figures, and historical figures from pre-Islamic Persian culture? Or why the administrative language throughout the Safavid Empire was Persian and Turkish was removed entirely only for the military?

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Was he based ?
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He was clubbed to death like a baby seal by a bunch of poles.
Who then proceeded to home back to poland and raise his children.

But he served in a brigade of based men.
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>believing the official story
He went to Argentina where he became a peloton cyclist
Undoubtably so

Is the a complete list of peoples who at some point in history received an influx of Levantine blood?
Egypt, Arabia, Somalia, Western North Africa. They all have nafutian blood
Interesting. And what of good Solonius?
I mean Spain, fucking autocorrect

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Why do so many religions and cultures preform a whirling dance usually said to increase spirituality? Where did it come from? Hindu, Islam, Tao and probably more. Even today whirling dance is used by civilians in warzones as it is widely reported by the dancers to decrease depression. Some call it escapism and do it just to elevate mental problems. If you haven't practiced whirling and try it now you'll find it pretty difficult but there's a weird feeling you get even once you get over the dizziness. A dirty head feeling which I think feels like a weak dose of the painkiller Tramadol. Any thoughts on this?
Just a form of meditation, just not of the most efficient ones
The power of autism
I guess its that whirling around and around make people feel that they are in a trance, and thus closer to God / their own thoughts / spirits, whatever the religion advocates for

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Why is the presence of a hereditary aristocracy aside from the monarch so rare in Islamic Monarchies?
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Because Islamic Monarchies shouldn't be a thing in the first place.

During the first two caliphates, the only ruling "monarch" should just be the caliphs. The likes of Sultans and Emirs were just supposed to be regional governors of the Muslim Empire. When the Caliphates began to decline in power, the Muslim World became a massive free-for-all, with the Sultans and Emirs going warlord and effectively becoming monarchs whose sole legitimacy is based on their de facto power. Much like the Daimyo/Kuge

Add to this are the rise of Slave-Soldier Generals from Steppenigger tribes who took over the military and then entire sultanates and emirates. Eventually this mess led to the invasion of steppeniggers into Muslim lands. And Central Asians only answered to the power of a given warlord to protect them and lead them to battle.
Oh and as for the Ottomans, they descended from literal Fresh off the Steppe people who suddenly found themselves in possession of a sedentary state. After realizing that their traditional Steppenigger hereditary laws of dividing the Khan's property among his sons wasn't conducive to the maintenance of a unified sedentary state, the Ottomans then began a policy of royal fratricide where brothers of the Sultan were strangled after the Sultan produces a male heir. This ultimately stopped when the house of Osman got used to the idea of primogeniture.
They are an essentially tribal society, aristocracy as a counterbalance to autocracy is the product of more advanced cultures.
Thats pretty smart desu
It's pretty based how slave classes become monarchs so often in Islam.

Even the OG Arab warrior was a black slave

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From the leading linguist and philologist, Dr Nassim Nicholas Taleb:
>The points here are 1) Lebanese (more generally NorthWestern Levantine, neo-Canaanite) is to be treated as a standalone Semitic dialect (or language) that descends from other languages, including Arabic (which itself was influenced by same predecessors) but has not inherited from it as much as marketed (broken plurals but not its rich verb forms). And never ignore its own developments, by its own evolution, separately from other Semitic languages. 2) Its grammar as we will see below remains largely nonArabic. Many words that are in both Leb and Arabic but not common in Aramaic happen to be in North-Phoenician (Ugaritic). 3) Its vocabulary largely predates Arabic (even in cases where we got what appears to be Arabic innovations)
>Many people who are fluent and Levantine and classical Arabic fail to realize that the distance between the two is greater than between many languages deemed distinct, such as French and Romanian… Slavic “languages” such as Ukranian and Polish are much, much closer to one another than Levantine and Arabic. Same with Scandinavian and Germanic languages. Also note that if Arabians share vocabulary with Lebs, it is because of two-way flow.
>(If the Lebanese know Arabic, it is from education system and Television, not from speaking it).
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He's very clearly a Fellahin and that's Felucca in the background.
The Levant is diverse, you're basically saying he was half American(whatever the fuck that means)
Southern Egyptians look more similar to Sudanese peoples than to the majority northern Egyptian population
Hide Taleb threads
Ignore Taleb posts
Do not reply to Taleb posters
Southern Egyptians are the real Egyptians.

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How did the Aztecs fail to push back the Spaniards in their own territory?
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t. Xope
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yeah thats what I said
>disease magically passes over the Spanish themselves (racial superiority maybe?)

Are you that stupid you don't understand the concept of immunity? Or what living with livestock causes?

> don’t even get me started on how the Tlaxcalan went unaffected by this disease that only targets the natives

No one has ever said this

>How come the Aztecs ambushed the Spanish twice, when the Spanish had no allies, and the Spanish won decisively both times?

The fuck are you talking about

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How accurate is this really???
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Venezuela got fucked by the tanking oil-price, case of too many eggs in a single basket. Sure it didn't help that the communist government appointed loyalists in key positions and not competent people.

[spoiler] Cia is ruining shit in venezuela aswell I promise you [/spoiler]
>Venezuela got fucked by the tanking oil-price
But Norway, Saudi Arabia, Canada, the UAE, Russia, Iran, Nigeria and other major oil exporters didn't collapse, just Venezuela. What a coincidence.

Maybe it had something to do with the fact that Chavez nationalized every single industry on the country and destroyed it, leaving them wholly dependent on oil in the first place.

Oil was 73% of exports in 1998 and 96% by 2015.

>Cia is ruining shit in venezuela aswell I promise you
No it isn't, the government killed 7000 opposition protesters with the backing of Russian paramilitary mercenaries. (Bachelet report)

Trump doesn't give a shit, he loves Russia.
How many niggers in prison would prefer a labor colony in Alaska?
Our parents want to kill us so we're clinging to what they're afraid of.
Nazis and communists need to team up to kill the centrists liberals. Nazbol gang.

Did Scythians raise their wives' sons after all?
>While the Scythians were fighting in Asia, the Scythian women, thinking that they had been deserted by their husbands, had children by their slaves. When their masters returned, the slaves decided to resist them by force. They accordingly took the field; and advanced in arms, to give them battle. One of the Scythians, fearing that, once the fighting started, desperation might make the slaves brave, advised that the Scythians should lay down their arms and bows, and advance against their slaves with whips in their hands. Accordingly the Scythians took up their whips; and the slaves, suddenly made conscious of their own servitude, immediately threw down their arms, and fled.
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>one study
I've seen like 3-4 including this one. And I can safely say that you're wrong.
The other anon said that they were from the same site, so those would be outliers. Makes sense since R1b is centum and R1a is satem.
The thing is, if you go far back, R1a and R1b are usually separated tribes. But when it comes to Scythians, except for this one posted Burial, all other burials have R1b. Which makes me think the two groups merged in an unknown way. Wikipedia is not helping since it's claiming that Srubnaya comes from Yamnaya, when the Y-DNA changes drastically from R1b (Yamnaya) to R1a (Srubnaya). So there are clearly pieces of the puzzle missing here when it comes to what happened exactly.
Srubnya could have still come from Yamnaya maternally.
Could, sure, where's the proof.

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